The question was on a large price move in a merger of tageted and acquirer firm. That leads to a frown not smile.The wording is important. In general, jumps suggest an volatility smile; this is hopefully intuitive, a greater probability of big move suggests heavier-than-lognormal tails. However, the confusion arises because a binomial (e.g., bimodal) distribution tends to have lighter tails and therefore suggests a frown; this is per Hulls 20.8, but his example is a bimodal distribution (his bimodal example concerns a "single large jump" which is different than a general jump risk model), not the situation when there are jumps in the underlying asset price (a binomial distribution with p in the neighborhood of 0.50 +/- 0.10 has kurtosis < 3).
In this way, "jump risk" suggests a volatility smile (not frown). See https://forum.bionicturtle.com/threads/vol-frown-jumps-in-underlying-asset.10256/#post-59508 but also Hull's EOC question 20.3:
Bottom line (in my humble opinion): "jumps" is far more likely to suggest smile than frown because for a frown (i) the question would need to be explicit about the bimodial/mixture nature of the distribution and (ii) the smile should be more intuitive, anyway, right? Jump risk suggests heavier tails and therefore smile.
It was frown not smile as the question stated big price moves in a mergerThanks for clearing things up David. I was a bit confused when I read some people went with a frown.
Hi David,
Regardless of whether or not there were mistakes on previous GARP practice tests/exams, I simply meant that BT did not have us practice how to calculate CVA charges [(1-RR)(EE)(PD)(DF)] on any of the BT practice tests. and the only place I had seen or practiced the question setup was from previous GARP practice exams (2012-2015, I can’t remember) So regardless of whether their calcs in practice exams were correct, GARP seems to have demonstrated an importance on the concepts —> and maybe something to add to BT going forward. This is the 2nd GARP exam I’ve taken (after FRM 1) where they have re asked questions that look VERY SIMILAR to the practice questions they release over the years
While thinking of it, GARP also asked some convuluted exposure type questions where several counter parties are involved facing each other with different credit exposures, and it was asked to identify the risks and/or how to hedge. I think questions of this nature would be a huge benefit for understanding to future FRM 2 test takers
Is that the fourth option? Or no such thing as basis risk and counterparty credit risk. I recall seeing counterparty credit risk once. My memory must have failed me....I went for funding risk and counterparty credit risk.
I was under the same impression and this was what happened in London but then how is it possible for other countries to have had a wall clock in the actual exam room?? I think this is not fair game so was wondering if anyone could advise on any formal policy that GARP might have released regarding this. Maybe @David Harper CFA FRM or @Nicole Seaman would be the best persons to assist.
It was frown not smile as the question stated big price moves in a merger
I believe right option was funding and liquidity risk... Were there two option with funding risk....1. Funding and Counterparty and 2 Funding and liquidity? I went with funding and liquidyt.
What were the options? I already forgot. One of the answers was something about different bank sizes, right? I know I did not chose this one.
Does someone remember about the EL from a PIT model question? I went that it was not suitable for Stress test, but was very unsure.
I believe right option was funding and liquidity risk... Were there two option with funding risk....1. Funding and Counterparty and 2 Funding and liquidity? I went with funding and liquidyt.