08 Practice exam continuously using 1.96 for 95% confidence

hsuwang

Member
Hello David,

I've been working through the 08 practice exam and have found many cases where the answers were using 1.96 for a single tailed 95% confidence. I'm not sure if it is GARP's mistake..

for example, for the calculation of LVaR, 08' Practice I #36

Consider an asset worth USD 1 million whose 95th percentile VaR is USD 100,000. Suppose the bid-ask spread on the asset has a mean of USD .1 and stdev of USD .3. What is the 95t% liquidity adjusted VaR?

The answer takes 100,000 + 1mm .5(.1+.3(1.96))

I'm sure 1.96 is wrong for a one-tailed 95% test but for some reason I've seen this mistake all over the 08' practice... since these exam questions actually come from past exams, this is really frustrating because if I were to use 1.64, there won't be any choices that will match the answer..

Thanks you.
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi Jack

It is GARP's mistake. Actually, that question has two problems. Please see:
http://forum.bionicturtle.com/viewthread/764/
(i explicitly challenged this question in regard to the one- or two-tail and the response was ultimately "we agree with you" ...my challenge on this point survived considerable scrutiny frankly)
...so your instincts are just fine ... it should indeed be a one-tail 1.645 instead of 1.96
...don't even get me started on how much it frustrates me :)
...but the good news is: I know GARP knows about this historical mistake

the correct answer is illustrated in this spreadsheet: https://www.editgrid.com/bt/admin/sample_2008_q36

btw, the other mistake illustrate why I prefer to use Dowd's absolute VaR formula; i.e.,
-return + (volatility)*(deviate)

it looks silly at first glance (why not just use volatilty* deviate - return) ... but, it turns out that the +/- signage can lead to errors like committed in the '08 practice exam: they end up netting the additional spread in the wrong direction ... but Dowd's approach is more robust to the *addition* of the LVaR term (IMO), it is totally "safe" to *add* one-half the spread

Thanks, David
 
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