Dr. Jayanthi Sankaran
Well-Known Member
Hi David:
For the problem below:
316.3. Sarah won a lottery that gives her a choice between two payouts. Neglecting any liquidity or counterparty risk, she simply wants to select the option with the higher present value. Her choices are between an annuity and a perpetuity:
I. The annuity will pay her $1,000 every six months, six months from today, over the next ten years; i.e., equivalent to a 2.0% semiannual coupon on $100,000 notional.
II. A perpetuity will pay her $500 every six months but forever
The yield curve happens to be conveniently flat at 8.0% at all maturities. The annuity does not pay anything beyond the final $1,000 "coupon" which is why we might refer to a "notional" rather than a "principal." Which of the following is correct?
a) The annuity has a higher present value regardless of the yield
b) The annuity has a higher present value at the current 8.0% yield but not necessarily at any yield
c) The perpetuity has a higher present value regardless of the yield
d) The perpetuity has a higher present value at the current 8.0% yield but not necessarily at any yield
Your answer appears to be:
316.3. B. The annuity has a higher present value at this 8.0% yield but not necessarily at any yield. The perpetuity PV = $1,000/08= $12,500; or, equivalently, $500/0.04 = $12,500. The annuity factor, A(T) = (1 - 1/1.04^20)/008 = 6.795163 such that PV = $2,000*6.795163 = $13,590.33.
At 8.0% yield, the annuity has a higher PV, however, as the yield decreases the perpetuity gains in relative value. For example, the annuity has an upper bound of $2,000 * 10 years = $20,000 as the yield (discount rate) approaches zero but the perpetuity has no such limit.
My answer using Tuckman's formula
Annuity(T) = (1/(y/2))*[1 - 1/(1 + y/2)*2T = (1/.04)*[1 - 1/(1.04)^20 = 13.59
Present value of Annuity (T) = $1,000*13.59 = $13,590.325 which is exactly what you get above
However, in the case of the perpetuity:
Present value of perpetuity = C/y = $1000/0.04 = $25,000. This is because since C = $1,000 = 1%*$100,000. And, y = 8%/2 = 4% (semiannual compounding).
So my answer turns out to be c) The perpetuity has a higher present value regardless of the yield..
Could you please explain why PV of the perpetuity is higher than the annuity at the 8% semi-annual yield?
Thanks
Jayanthi
For the problem below:
316.3. Sarah won a lottery that gives her a choice between two payouts. Neglecting any liquidity or counterparty risk, she simply wants to select the option with the higher present value. Her choices are between an annuity and a perpetuity:
I. The annuity will pay her $1,000 every six months, six months from today, over the next ten years; i.e., equivalent to a 2.0% semiannual coupon on $100,000 notional.
II. A perpetuity will pay her $500 every six months but forever
The yield curve happens to be conveniently flat at 8.0% at all maturities. The annuity does not pay anything beyond the final $1,000 "coupon" which is why we might refer to a "notional" rather than a "principal." Which of the following is correct?
a) The annuity has a higher present value regardless of the yield
b) The annuity has a higher present value at the current 8.0% yield but not necessarily at any yield
c) The perpetuity has a higher present value regardless of the yield
d) The perpetuity has a higher present value at the current 8.0% yield but not necessarily at any yield
Your answer appears to be:
316.3. B. The annuity has a higher present value at this 8.0% yield but not necessarily at any yield. The perpetuity PV = $1,000/08= $12,500; or, equivalently, $500/0.04 = $12,500. The annuity factor, A(T) = (1 - 1/1.04^20)/008 = 6.795163 such that PV = $2,000*6.795163 = $13,590.33.
At 8.0% yield, the annuity has a higher PV, however, as the yield decreases the perpetuity gains in relative value. For example, the annuity has an upper bound of $2,000 * 10 years = $20,000 as the yield (discount rate) approaches zero but the perpetuity has no such limit.
My answer using Tuckman's formula
Annuity(T) = (1/(y/2))*[1 - 1/(1 + y/2)*2T = (1/.04)*[1 - 1/(1.04)^20 = 13.59
Present value of Annuity (T) = $1,000*13.59 = $13,590.325 which is exactly what you get above
However, in the case of the perpetuity:
Present value of perpetuity = C/y = $1000/0.04 = $25,000. This is because since C = $1,000 = 1%*$100,000. And, y = 8%/2 = 4% (semiannual compounding).
So my answer turns out to be c) The perpetuity has a higher present value regardless of the yield..
Could you please explain why PV of the perpetuity is higher than the annuity at the 8% semi-annual yield?
Thanks
Jayanthi
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