S2000magician
New Member
Dear David:
I've seen your name occasionally on AnalystForum and your reputation precedes you. Recently, I was discussing key rate duration with Marc LeFebvre and he said that he had gotten many ideas on key rate duration from a video of yours, which he shared with me.
The question deals with which rates, exactly, are changed in computing a key rate duration. The video of yours that Marc shared with me suggests that we are changing a single spot rate. (I also notice that your formulation uses continuous spot rates, not periodic (i.e., annual) spot rates, but that's not germane to this discussion.) In the Level II CFA curriculum, they change not a single spot rate, but a single par rate. Although they're not really explicit about it being a par rate that they're changing, it becomes clear when you look at one of their tables and see that, for example, a 10-year par bond has a 3-year key rate duration of 0.00 years, and a 10-year discount bond has a 3-year key-rate duration that is negative; those durations would have to be positive if you were changing only the 3-year spot rate (leaving all other spot rates unchanged).
I don't have the FRM curriculum. (Although I have spent many years in risk management – project risk management primarily – I have no inclination to study for another exam or two. Well . . . unless it's to get a PhD in algebraic topology. I'm too old for this.) Therefore, I don't know what it says about key rate duration. I would be grateful for any insight you (or others, for that matter) could provide.
Thanks!
Sincerely,
Bill Campbell III, CFA
"S2000magician" on AnalystForum
I've seen your name occasionally on AnalystForum and your reputation precedes you. Recently, I was discussing key rate duration with Marc LeFebvre and he said that he had gotten many ideas on key rate duration from a video of yours, which he shared with me.
The question deals with which rates, exactly, are changed in computing a key rate duration. The video of yours that Marc shared with me suggests that we are changing a single spot rate. (I also notice that your formulation uses continuous spot rates, not periodic (i.e., annual) spot rates, but that's not germane to this discussion.) In the Level II CFA curriculum, they change not a single spot rate, but a single par rate. Although they're not really explicit about it being a par rate that they're changing, it becomes clear when you look at one of their tables and see that, for example, a 10-year par bond has a 3-year key rate duration of 0.00 years, and a 10-year discount bond has a 3-year key-rate duration that is negative; those durations would have to be positive if you were changing only the 3-year spot rate (leaving all other spot rates unchanged).
I don't have the FRM curriculum. (Although I have spent many years in risk management – project risk management primarily – I have no inclination to study for another exam or two. Well . . . unless it's to get a PhD in algebraic topology. I'm too old for this.) Therefore, I don't know what it says about key rate duration. I would be grateful for any insight you (or others, for that matter) could provide.
Thanks!
Sincerely,
Bill Campbell III, CFA
"S2000magician" on AnalystForum
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