coskewness and cokurtosis

Kanth

New Member
Hi,

Where exactly we use these higher moments i.e Co-Skewness and Co-Kurtosis ? by using these moments what exactly we interpret with given data ?

Thank you.
 

masterwu2014

New Member
Hi David:

I saw in your video that as per (2013) exam curriculum (co-skew and co-kurtosis) were not high exam relevance testing material. But you mentioned that it is still yet to be seen if they will be of more higher exam relevance in the future. Do you think it will be of much higher exam relevance in this coming 2014 may level 1 exam? pls advise. thank you.

-mw2014.
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi @masterwu2014

Right, I saw no mention in the Nov FRM de-brief so I would continue to characterize co-skew and co-kurtosis with low (to very low) exam relevance (I don't think I've even seen a question about them; I think they are hard to query). But you never know, GARP apparently decided to retain the AIM "... and interpret the concepts of coskewness and cokurtosis," so some exam reference is possible. I hope that helps, thanks,
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi @tosuhn Source Q&A is here @ https://forum.bionicturtle.com/threads/p1-t2-307-skew-and-kurtosis-miller.6825/#post-23328
Let X = 0 with prob 95.0% and X = 1 with prob 5.0%, such that mean (X) = 0.050:
3rd central moment = (1-0.05)^3*5% + (0-0.05)^3*95% = 0.04275, such that skew = 0.04275/(5%*95%)^(3/2) = 4.1295 (or -4.1295)
4th central moment = (1-0.05)^4*5% + (0-0.05)^4*95% = 0.04073, such that kurtosis = 0.04073/(5%*95%)^2= 18.053

The nth moment about the mean (i.e., nth central moment) is given by E [(X - μ)^n] such that the 3rd central moment = E [(X - μ)^3] and fourth central moment = E [(X - μ)^4]. As Miller shows, these are standardized by dividing by, respectively, σ^3 and σ^4 to return skew and kurtosis.
 
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tosuhn

Active Member
Hi @David Harper CFA FRM CIPM thanks for your reply. The assumption made is it due to the question that it is a bond and thus we used the bernoulli/ binomial distribution where there are only 2 instance (i.e. default and no default) and thus we use mean=np and variance=npq?
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi @tosuhn Yes, that is exactly correct! The same function--i.e., for variance, skew, kurtosis--applies, but we just happen to have here a Bernoulli, which seems to cause confusion only because it is deceptively simple. A variance is given by E[(X- μ)^2], which is a 2nd central moment such that n = 2, and therefore when p = 5% = 0.05, we can find the variance with:

given mean = 0*95% + 1*5% = 0.05,
E[(X- μ)^2] = 95%*(0 - 0.05)^2 + 5%*(1 - 0.05)^2 = 0.04750, which of course is given straightaway by n*p*(1-p) = 1*5%*95% = 0.04750

So, it's funny, i think the hardest part is just noticing that it's a very simple discrete distribution:
  • 0 with prob of 95%
  • 1 with prob of 5%.
I hope that helps!
 
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