Suzanne Evans
Well-Known Member
David is going to conduct our 2010 FRM Level 2 (1 of 2) review webinar on Saturday October 2nd at 9 AM U.S. EST.
Agenda:
* Market Risk (T5)
* Credit Risk (T6)
* Operational Risk (T7)
Preview case study questions: see below.
Preview draft of presentation: Go here to download preview presentation (PDF on right sidebar). This is the same page that will subsequently be updated with the recording and the single (master) spreadsheet.
Logistics
When: Saturday October 2nd at 9 AM U.S. EST. What time is that for you? Click here for your local time.
You MUST be a paid member in order to access the live webinar. If you are not, please do not register as your registration will be denied. For those of you who are unable to attend, don’t worry! The webinar will be recorded and published to the premium section ASAP.
Go here to register.
Please be sure to register for the webinar with the same email that you use for bionicturtle.com!
We are allocating 2+ hours (similar to the webinars that were conducted in early 2010). Because the FRM has so much material, of course everything cannot be covered. Rather, David is going to share his view of the most critical ideas. So this webinar is merely a supplement to your regular plan. Please do not defer/delay your study plan in favor of this review; it can only give you a small “boost.” His goal is to keep you on track.
Finally, perhaps you have identified a difficult question? If you have a particular issue or question that you’d like us to cover, please let us know in the forum thread or email .(JavaScript must be enabled to view this email address).
HERE are the case-study practice QUESTIONS I will use to "anchor" the review
(these intentionally compound and meander to maximize topical "footprint" and our limited time):
#1. VaR backtest (Jorion Chapter 6)
UBS conducts a backtest of its daily 99% VaR, which is $10 million, using a binomial test:
In 2008, zero (0) exceedances (assume each year has T = 250 trading days)
In 2009, nine (9) exceedances.
After the backtest, they decide to re-calibrate the 99% daily VaR using two-year historical simulation (HS based on all 500 trading days for both 2008 and 2009). The worst losses ordered in loss/profit (L/P) format are: {…, $14 million, $15, $16, $17, $18, $19, $20}
Questions:
1a. With 95% confidence (i.e., 5% significance), can we reject the VaR as unbiased in 2008 (T=250)
1b. With 95% confidence, can we reject the 99% VaR in 2009? (T=250)? In the two-year period 2008 and 2009? (T=500)
1c. What is the 99% HS VaR, based simply on trailing 500 days?
1d. (To contemplate only, no right/wrong answer here) What adjustments/extensions can we make to HS VaR? hint: Dowd Chapter 4.
#2. Liquidity-adjusted Value at Risk (LVaR)
Assume the following:
* Portfolio wealth (W) = $1 million
* Annual volatility = 30%
* Expected annual return = 10%
* Actual spread / bid-ask spread midpoint = 0.02
* Standard Deviation (spread) = 1.0%
Questions:
* What is the 95% confident daily liquidity-adjust value at risk (LVaR), assuming constant spread?
* What is the 95% daily LVaR, assuming exogenous spread, if k=3?
* (For contemplation) How else can liquidity be incorporated into VaR?
#3. Bond probability of default (PD)
Assume:
* Zero-coupon bond with 2-year maturity
* Bond has $100.00 face value and market price of $90.48
* Risk-free rate is 2.0%,
Questions:
* What is implied credit spread (S) (continuous discounting)?
* Assume flat zero (spot rate) curves: riskfree/Treasury at 2.0% and risky/Corporate at 2.0% + spread (S). If zero recovery (LGD = 100%), what is 2-year cumulative probability of default (2 year cumulative PD)?
* Now introduce recovery of 40% (LGD = 60%). What is an approximation for the default intensity (DI) (hazard rate)?
* Use the default intensity (DI) to estimate 2-year cumulative PD.
* Bonus: Answer the first two above with annual/semiannual compounding instead
#4. RAROC and unexpected loss (UL)
Assumptions about a loan:
* $10 million loan outstanding (OS) pays an annual rate of 7.0%
* Funded with $10 million in deposits that earn (a deposit charge of) 5.0%
* Economic capital of 5.0% is invested at a rate of 6.0%
* Allocated operating cost = 0.8% of loan
* Probability of default (PD) = 2.0%
* Loss given default (LGD) = 50%
* Standard deviation of LGD = 40%.
Questions:
* What is the loan's RAROC?
* The bank has an additional unused commitment of $10 million (i.e., $20 MM COM - $10 MM OS) with usage given default (UGD) of 50%. What is the unexpected loss (UL) of the adjusted exposure (AE)?
Agenda:
* Market Risk (T5)
* Credit Risk (T6)
* Operational Risk (T7)
Preview case study questions: see below.
Preview draft of presentation: Go here to download preview presentation (PDF on right sidebar). This is the same page that will subsequently be updated with the recording and the single (master) spreadsheet.
Logistics
When: Saturday October 2nd at 9 AM U.S. EST. What time is that for you? Click here for your local time.
You MUST be a paid member in order to access the live webinar. If you are not, please do not register as your registration will be denied. For those of you who are unable to attend, don’t worry! The webinar will be recorded and published to the premium section ASAP.
Go here to register.
Please be sure to register for the webinar with the same email that you use for bionicturtle.com!
We are allocating 2+ hours (similar to the webinars that were conducted in early 2010). Because the FRM has so much material, of course everything cannot be covered. Rather, David is going to share his view of the most critical ideas. So this webinar is merely a supplement to your regular plan. Please do not defer/delay your study plan in favor of this review; it can only give you a small “boost.” His goal is to keep you on track.
Finally, perhaps you have identified a difficult question? If you have a particular issue or question that you’d like us to cover, please let us know in the forum thread or email .(JavaScript must be enabled to view this email address).
HERE are the case-study practice QUESTIONS I will use to "anchor" the review
(these intentionally compound and meander to maximize topical "footprint" and our limited time):
#1. VaR backtest (Jorion Chapter 6)
UBS conducts a backtest of its daily 99% VaR, which is $10 million, using a binomial test:
In 2008, zero (0) exceedances (assume each year has T = 250 trading days)
In 2009, nine (9) exceedances.
After the backtest, they decide to re-calibrate the 99% daily VaR using two-year historical simulation (HS based on all 500 trading days for both 2008 and 2009). The worst losses ordered in loss/profit (L/P) format are: {…, $14 million, $15, $16, $17, $18, $19, $20}
Questions:
1a. With 95% confidence (i.e., 5% significance), can we reject the VaR as unbiased in 2008 (T=250)
1b. With 95% confidence, can we reject the 99% VaR in 2009? (T=250)? In the two-year period 2008 and 2009? (T=500)
1c. What is the 99% HS VaR, based simply on trailing 500 days?
1d. (To contemplate only, no right/wrong answer here) What adjustments/extensions can we make to HS VaR? hint: Dowd Chapter 4.
#2. Liquidity-adjusted Value at Risk (LVaR)
Assume the following:
* Portfolio wealth (W) = $1 million
* Annual volatility = 30%
* Expected annual return = 10%
* Actual spread / bid-ask spread midpoint = 0.02
* Standard Deviation (spread) = 1.0%
Questions:
* What is the 95% confident daily liquidity-adjust value at risk (LVaR), assuming constant spread?
* What is the 95% daily LVaR, assuming exogenous spread, if k=3?
* (For contemplation) How else can liquidity be incorporated into VaR?
#3. Bond probability of default (PD)
Assume:
* Zero-coupon bond with 2-year maturity
* Bond has $100.00 face value and market price of $90.48
* Risk-free rate is 2.0%,
Questions:
* What is implied credit spread (S) (continuous discounting)?
* Assume flat zero (spot rate) curves: riskfree/Treasury at 2.0% and risky/Corporate at 2.0% + spread (S). If zero recovery (LGD = 100%), what is 2-year cumulative probability of default (2 year cumulative PD)?
* Now introduce recovery of 40% (LGD = 60%). What is an approximation for the default intensity (DI) (hazard rate)?
* Use the default intensity (DI) to estimate 2-year cumulative PD.
* Bonus: Answer the first two above with annual/semiannual compounding instead
#4. RAROC and unexpected loss (UL)
Assumptions about a loan:
* $10 million loan outstanding (OS) pays an annual rate of 7.0%
* Funded with $10 million in deposits that earn (a deposit charge of) 5.0%
* Economic capital of 5.0% is invested at a rate of 6.0%
* Allocated operating cost = 0.8% of loan
* Probability of default (PD) = 2.0%
* Loss given default (LGD) = 50%
* Standard deviation of LGD = 40%.
Questions:
* What is the loan's RAROC?
* The bank has an additional unused commitment of $10 million (i.e., $20 MM COM - $10 MM OS) with usage given default (UGD) of 50%. What is the unexpected loss (UL) of the adjusted exposure (AE)?