I have learned that one of the reasons why Expected shortfall is a better measurement of risk is because Expected shortfall is subadditivity while VaR is not.
Yet, there is formula for calculating diversified VaR for portfolio (I believe the formula is in the book of investment risk).
Wouldn't that be self-contradictory?
Yet, there is formula for calculating diversified VaR for portfolio (I believe the formula is in the book of investment risk).
Wouldn't that be self-contradictory?