Friday I wrote five forward rate questions, the first one I based on an actual prior exam question. Adzi asked me, in the question thread, to source the approach. I don't think the approach is explicitly found in any of the assignments (to my knowledge). I thought it might be helpful to highlight the "shortcut." Instead of my questions, I will use GARP's actual question.
The handbook question 9.7 (FRM exam 2007) is:
The price of a three-year zero-coupon government bond is $85.16. The price of a similar four-year bond is $79.81. What is the one-year implied forward rate from year three to year four? (FRM handbook page 221).
The concise solution given is 85.16/79.18 - 1 = 6.7%
I hope you noticed that, technically, the compound frequency is missing; we are left to assume annual, but semi-annual would give us a slightly different answer. In my opinion, the question should explicitly specify that it wants annual compounding: a one-year forward rate does not imply annual compounding. We can refer to a one-year forward rate, F[3,4], under an assumption of semi-annual compounding. But that's not my main point here, sorry .... )
Our readings teach us to infer for the forward rate from: (1+R3)^3*(1+F[3,4]) = (1+R4)^4
... in words, we should expect the same return from either of two choices:
But if we have the bond prices, they are (again, assuming annual compounding!)
P(3) = F/(1+R3)^3,
P(4) = F/(1+R4)^4,
So that, if F = face value = $100 or the face value:
(1+R3)^3 = F/P(3), and
(1+R4)^4 = F/P(4)
Our first intuitive no-arbitrage formula tells us:
(1+R3)^3*(1+F[3,4]) = (1+R4)^4, so that the forward price is given by:
F[3,4] = (1+R4)^4 / (1+R3)^3 - 1
and we can no substitute F/P(3) for (1+R3)^3 and F/P(4) for (1+R4)^4:
F[3,4] = [F/P(4)] / [F/P(3)] - 1, and since [F/P(4)] / [F/P(3)] = F/P(4) * P(3)/F = P(3)/P(4), we have:
F[3,4] = P(3)/(P4) - 1; i.e., the efficient answer given by GARP
I also used the shortcut in the question that employs discount factors instead of bond prices. The same idea applies. Let's say that the question above, instead of prices, gave us two discount factors, d(3.0) and d(4.0). We know that:
d(3.0) = 1/(1+R3)^3, and
d(4.0) = 1/(1+R4)^4, and
such that:
(1+R3)^3 = 1/d(3.0), and
(1+R4)^4 = 1/d(4.0), such that:
F[3,4] = d(3.0)/d(4.0) - 1
I hope that's interesting! David
The handbook question 9.7 (FRM exam 2007) is:
The price of a three-year zero-coupon government bond is $85.16. The price of a similar four-year bond is $79.81. What is the one-year implied forward rate from year three to year four? (FRM handbook page 221).
The concise solution given is 85.16/79.18 - 1 = 6.7%
I hope you noticed that, technically, the compound frequency is missing; we are left to assume annual, but semi-annual would give us a slightly different answer. In my opinion, the question should explicitly specify that it wants annual compounding: a one-year forward rate does not imply annual compounding. We can refer to a one-year forward rate, F[3,4], under an assumption of semi-annual compounding. But that's not my main point here, sorry .... )
Our readings teach us to infer for the forward rate from: (1+R3)^3*(1+F[3,4]) = (1+R4)^4
... in words, we should expect the same return from either of two choices:
- On the left-hand side (above), we invest in the a three-year bond and, subsequently, "roll-over" into a one year at the forward rate, F[3,4]. Of course, today we don't know what the one-year spot rate will be in three years! But the forward rate, F(3,4), is our best current guess; it the expected future one-year spot rate.
- On the right-hand side, we invest in the four-year bond
But if we have the bond prices, they are (again, assuming annual compounding!)
P(3) = F/(1+R3)^3,
P(4) = F/(1+R4)^4,
So that, if F = face value = $100 or the face value:
(1+R3)^3 = F/P(3), and
(1+R4)^4 = F/P(4)
Our first intuitive no-arbitrage formula tells us:
(1+R3)^3*(1+F[3,4]) = (1+R4)^4, so that the forward price is given by:
F[3,4] = (1+R4)^4 / (1+R3)^3 - 1
and we can no substitute F/P(3) for (1+R3)^3 and F/P(4) for (1+R4)^4:
F[3,4] = [F/P(4)] / [F/P(3)] - 1, and since [F/P(4)] / [F/P(3)] = F/P(4) * P(3)/F = P(3)/P(4), we have:
F[3,4] = P(3)/(P4) - 1; i.e., the efficient answer given by GARP
I also used the shortcut in the question that employs discount factors instead of bond prices. The same idea applies. Let's say that the question above, instead of prices, gave us two discount factors, d(3.0) and d(4.0). We know that:
d(3.0) = 1/(1+R3)^3, and
d(4.0) = 1/(1+R4)^4, and
such that:
(1+R3)^3 = 1/d(3.0), and
(1+R4)^4 = 1/d(4.0), such that:
F[3,4] = d(3.0)/d(4.0) - 1
I hope that's interesting! David