Relationship between Mac and Mod Duration

td

New Member
I would like to understand the conceptual relationship between Mac and Mod Duration.

Mac Duration is a weighted avg time to repayment. How does multiplying Mac D times (1/(1+y)) result in the percent change in bond price for a 100 bps change in yield (Mod D)?

What are the units for the (1/(1+y))? What does this term represent conceptually?
 
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