I would like to understand the conceptual relationship between Mac and Mod Duration.
Mac Duration is a weighted avg time to repayment. How does multiplying Mac D times (1/(1+y)) result in the percent change in bond price for a 100 bps change in yield (Mod D)?
What are the units for the (1/(1+y))? What does this term represent conceptually?
Mac Duration is a weighted avg time to repayment. How does multiplying Mac D times (1/(1+y)) result in the percent change in bond price for a 100 bps change in yield (Mod D)?
What are the units for the (1/(1+y))? What does this term represent conceptually?