tatiana.andronova
New Member
I answered "0 bps." 187.22 = 200 x e^-(0.0331 + Spread)*2. Solve for Spread = odoes anyone remember what they answered to this question?
I answered "0 bps." 187.22 = 200 x e^-(0.0331 + Spread)*2. Solve for Spread = odoes anyone remember what they answered to this question?
Me too!I answered "0 bps." 187.22 = 200 x e^-(0.0331 + Spread)*2. Solve for Spread = o
Discounting derivatives (non collateralised or risky assets) should use LIBOR for discounting i dont remember the question but OIS is used to discount close to risk free assetsi think I chose the OIS do have Risk and needs to evaluate....
The question was about impact of switching from OIS to LIBOR. I chose "dependence on bank risk"i think I chose the OIS do have Risk and needs to evaluate....
ois is for collateral..because it is considered risk free. But no choice for that and the last one ois does have risk sounds correct to me.Discounting derivatives (non collateralised or risky assets) should use LIBOR for discounting i dont remember the question but OIS is used to discount close to risk free assets
Oh..I remembered the wrong question then...>_< approximately which number it is...?The question was about impact of switching from OIS to LIBOR. I chose "dependence on bank risk"
Ugh...I prob did it wrong..I chose cva might decrease I think..I did remember now..The question was about impact of switching from OIS to LIBOR. I chose "dependence on bank risk"
I think that's the last three? Difference between duration and cash flow?VAR Mapping questions for fixed income securities were pretty basic, mostly on the difference between principal, duration and cash flow mapping. I recall one specifically referenced the necessity to adjust for yield returns VAR in the cash flow method.
Now i remember..probably i chose the same..bcz using libor would further decrease the EE and thus the cvaUgh...I prob did it wrong..I chose cva might decrease I think..I did remember now..
That's what I thought!!!!!Now i remember..probably i chose the same..bcz using libor would further decrease the EE and thus the cva
I used -1/2 * ln (market/ face) + rf get the same answerI answered "0 bps." 187.22 = 200 x e^-(0.0331 + Spread)*2. Solve for Spread = o
Any expectation on minimum cutoff? I believe around 40+ as a fair judgement for garp to maintain number of candidates passing level 2 around 55%That's what I thought!!!!!
I have no clue...I was aiming to get as many as my answers correct!! Of course with today's incidence I prob can't...I am bad at guessing cut off.Any expectation on minimum cutoff? I believe around 40+ as a fair judgement for garp to maintain number of candidates passing level 2 around 55%
I hope garp is thinking the same..I also think the exam was moderate difficulty. I wonder about GARP's motivation to lower the difficulty level of the exam, i.e. to increase the passing score (from the historical average of 55% to say 65%) or to let more people clear the exam.
i first calculated the market value of the bond using long treasury bond and short put option. which came to someway around 178. usin the credit spread formula i used this value to get spread of 331 basisI answered "0 bps." 187.22 = 200 x e^-(0.0331 + Spread)*2. Solve for Spread = o