Hi everyone,
I have one follow up question. The question #33 is:
An analyst estimates that the hazard rate for a company is 0.16 per year. The probability of survival in the first year followed by a default in the second year is closest to:
a. 11.62%.
b. 13.63%.
c. 14.79%.
d. 27.39%.
The official answer from the updated PDF file is c = 14.79% = 1-exp(-0.16).
Do you think the answer should be exp(-0.16)*[1-exp(-0.16)]=0.1260?
I have one follow up question. The question #33 is:
An analyst estimates that the hazard rate for a company is 0.16 per year. The probability of survival in the first year followed by a default in the second year is closest to:
a. 11.62%.
b. 13.63%.
c. 14.79%.
d. 27.39%.
The official answer from the updated PDF file is c = 14.79% = 1-exp(-0.16).
Do you think the answer should be exp(-0.16)*[1-exp(-0.16)]=0.1260?
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