In the market section you say that the geometric average taked into account 1/2 the SD How does that work. The formular is to multiply all the factors together and raise them to the 1/n power. less 1
If you take a series of returns, say: +10%, -10%, +20%, -20%
The arithmetic average is 0%
As you say, the geometric average = [(1.1)(0.9)(1.2)(0.8)]^(1/4) - 1< 0
I like to say "the volatility erodes (geometric) return"
This geometric return will be approximated by: arithmetic average - (1/2) variance
(not 1/2 standard deviation), so in this case:
I remember most probably from Part I that there is practice question asking something about the relationship between Rgeometric = ln ( 1 + Rarithmetic). If I remember it correclty, it is given in an equation form ................... but I simply do not remember where in the question set it is. Do you remember this one? Thought I note it down in my notes but now after searching for it like hell I can't find it anymore. I do need this practice question following the excellent link provided by you in the forum about the 'Misuse of expected returns'.
Can you please re-post the practice question again, David! This would be very much appreciated.
For what it's worth, I keep this paper handy when I need a quick reference on the (distributional) assumptions and approximations related to arithmetic vs geometric returns:
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