prasadhegde1
New Member
Hi David
I believe It is one of the most basic doubt while going through the readings of Gujarati .I would like to know the intuition behind using (n-2) degrees of freedom in t-dist , Is it not n-1 df ? with reference to gujarati pg 179 Ch 7 It has been stated that n-2 degrees of freedom is used .
Is this because of the property of t-dist variance = k/k-2 . I can understand that when a sample variance is used to estimate the population variance 1 df is being lost ,but I cant get the intuition behind n-2 df .Please help
I believe It is one of the most basic doubt while going through the readings of Gujarati .I would like to know the intuition behind using (n-2) degrees of freedom in t-dist , Is it not n-1 df ? with reference to gujarati pg 179 Ch 7 It has been stated that n-2 degrees of freedom is used .
Is this because of the property of t-dist variance = k/k-2 . I can understand that when a sample variance is used to estimate the population variance 1 df is being lost ,but I cant get the intuition behind n-2 df .Please help