American option

Hi,

I would like to ask about GARP Assigned Reading- Hull, Chapter 15

When a stock pays a divided , D , at time n.
At the last dividend date before expiration, t_n, the exercised value of the option is: S(t_n) - X
If the call option is unexercised and the dividend is paid, its unexercised value is : S(t_n)-D_n -X^(-r(T-t_n))

Why investor will only exercise when S(t_n) - X > S(t_n) - D_n - X^(-r(T-t_n)) ?

And why the closer the option is to expiration and the larger the dividend, the more optimal early exercise will become?

Appreciate your help!

Thank you
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi @Unusualskill I just answered a question similar to this, can you please look here at https://forum.bionicturtle.com/threads/lower-bounds-on-dividend-paying-options.10667/#post-52014
The pure theory idea is actually pretty straightforward: if you hold an american call option, you face a trade off:
  • exercise now, which earns you the underlying share and therefore the dividend, so this is a gain of the PV(dividends)
  • do not exercise, which has value because the strike price is fixed. So if the strike is K, but you exercise in T years (e.g., 0.25 years for three months), then the present value of that future exercise is K*exp(-r*T). So deferring exercise by itself actually gains you K - K*exp(-rT) = K*[1 - exp(-rt)]
Ergo it is advisable to exercise the option if PV(dividends) > K*[1 - exp(-rt)]; i.e., if the dividends earned are moe PV profitable than the strike price savings. I hope that's a helpful start!
 
Last edited:
Top