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Passed level 2....11221....disappointed that i got 2nd quartiles in operational risk and investment mmt......

Nopes........it still is not working...........wait for an hour more.........

I think the results are uploaded on their database. It is just not revealed. I still have a feeling that you passed it. :)

@ pojo....im getting the following message when i register........... Thank you for trying to register for the FRM / ERP Exam. Because you registered for the same Exam and the 2012 Exam results have not yet been released, we cannot allow you to register for the FRM / ERP Exam at this time...

If it is the same asset, wont the volatility be same? I thought they are different assets....Btw ur approach is also correct....

I remember similar question in Part2 actual exam...You just need to find the individual VAR at 99% C.I. If I am not wrong, the correlation between long positions was also given. But the actual position assumed was long and short. So the VAR of portfolio = Sqrt(VarA^2 + VarB^2 -...

Tricky...lol...It was not tricky at all when it comes to qualitative questions....it was ambiguous...I really liked Part1 becoz it indeed tested the concepts, application, understanding...barring a few quantitative questions, my personal opinion is that part2 just tested the memory in depth..

This was one of the shitty questions I encountered....I chose A after spending significant time...Like this question, there were two sentences/ a compound sentence in each option..Hence one part of the sentence may be true and the other part may be false.....So essentially we are working with...

Ya.zero seems to make sense. Another question gone for a toss. As of now, 5 questions are wrong for sure. Getting worried...I think I should avoid discussing.....

If I remember correctly, its about Asian option I guess. And its slightly in-the-money during the expiry I believe. And it progressed from being deep-out-of-money to slightly-in-the-money. So a 1 week before, it should be around at-the-money. Hence the answer I chose is 0.5.

True. There was one option which states Value of MBS issued > value of underlying mortgage pool which is the opposite of the collateralization. Regarding the asset and liabilities concept, let me explain clearly. From a financial perspective, anything which generates revenue over a future...

20. If I remember correctly, the question is "What amounts to overcollateralization" By definition, it happens value of MBS issued < Value of underlying mortgate pool. But none of the answer is close to it. CCA and excess spread are correct. There is one option which is phrased other way i.e...

I think I am missing sth here...the collateral are meant to be used as liquidity reserves. And the question asked which firm has the biggest liquidity crisis? So we have to choose the option which has least % of collateral posted, dont we? So the first choice I eliminated was B. I choose C I...

BioNerd 9. I dont remember the number exactly. Its two hundred sth. But I too summed the ones which got multiplied by 3. So we are correct. It is 285 then. 20. Even I was dilly-dallying between CCA and excess spread. But I read somewhere that excess spread will eventually accumulate to CCA...

ShaktiRathore I would like to make your following statement clearer. "Generally the prepayment occurs at low interest rates" The above statement holds good always for fixed interest rate mortgages. For Adjustable rate mortgages, esp. if the adjustment depends on current market interest...

I followe your posts keenly. You have a great understanding of the concepts. Would just like to know ur background.. Are u from IIT or sth.

Yes. True. Prepayment risk is generally accompanied by reinvestment risk. Becoz prepayments tend to happen when the interest rates are low and we need to invest the principal at a low interest rate. But in case the prepayment happened due to some other reason like forced sale, personal reasons...