I am studying p1, t1, Stulz's governance chapter and I really do not understand the part below. What is put option's undervalue and overvalue have to do with NPV? I appreciate your help. Thank you!
"A trading desk’s writing of underpriced, deep-out-of-the-money puts based on traders’ expectation that if the puts are not exercised and the desk ends up booking the premiums as income, the traders will receive higher bonuses. For the traders themselves, this seems like a can’t-lose proposition. If the puts do end up being exercised, the traders would have been unlikely to receive a bonus anyway because
asset values would have had to have fallen by a lot. But for the bank’s shareholders, such a trading strategy is a negative NPV project as a stand-alone project since the bank is selling an asset for less than it is worth."
"A trading desk’s writing of underpriced, deep-out-of-the-money puts based on traders’ expectation that if the puts are not exercised and the desk ends up booking the premiums as income, the traders will receive higher bonuses. For the traders themselves, this seems like a can’t-lose proposition. If the puts do end up being exercised, the traders would have been unlikely to receive a bonus anyway because
asset values would have had to have fallen by a lot. But for the bank’s shareholders, such a trading strategy is a negative NPV project as a stand-alone project since the bank is selling an asset for less than it is worth."