garchrookie
New Member
Volatility skew implies that Options with low strike prices have higher volatilities
These options include deep-out-of-the-money-puts and deep-in-the-money calls. Am I correct?
My question is why investors are willing to pay a higher price/volatility to buy deep-in-money calls?
(I understand that investors have a strong demand to buy deep-out-of-the-money puts to hedge against market crash. Accordingly, they pay a higher price for deep out-of-the-money puts.)
Thanks you for your response in advance.
These options include deep-out-of-the-money-puts and deep-in-the-money calls. Am I correct?
My question is why investors are willing to pay a higher price/volatility to buy deep-in-money calls?
(I understand that investors have a strong demand to buy deep-out-of-the-money puts to hedge against market crash. Accordingly, they pay a higher price for deep out-of-the-money puts.)
Thanks you for your response in advance.