There are a few details in the actual framework and, further, pending proposals put the details in flux, but from an exam perspective, the FRM has a tendency only to refer to the two major constraints mentioned by Jorion:
* Tier 2 can't exceed (can't be > 100%) of Tier 1. So, if the credit risk charge is $10 MM, then up to $5 MM of that can be Tier 2 but no more.
* Tier 3 cannot be more than 2.5x (250%) of Tier 1 and only for market risk (as the question shows, this implies a max of 71.4% T3)
(e.g., here is a recent question I wrote that gives practice to the T3/T1. A typical question checks that you understand T3 is only for market risk)
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