Eustice_Langham
Active Member
I'm hoping that someone can explain this to me as to me it sounds very counter intuitive..."To understand these results, note that the yield to maturity is a complicated function of the spot rates applicable to each payment date. As the coupon increases, the average time until the bond holder receives cash flows decreases, and the spot rates for the early payment dates become relatively more important in determining the yield.".....Specifically the comment that as the coupon increases, the average time until the bond holder receives cash flows decreases ....this doesnt make alot of sense to me, I would have thought that the period between cash flows is fixed and known in advance as are the coupons ie 3% every 6 months, so therefore how does this make the statement accurate?