Hello,
There is another example in Jorion where he seems to pull something out of thin air.
If you look at the risk budgeting problem on p 444, there is something fishy going on.
The particular step I am talking about it where he says the $525 million is split evenly betweent the two traders. The risk budget allocated to each of them being $98MM is fine, but then their correlation just happens to be the exact amount it would need to be in order for the total VaR based risk budget to be $184MM, which was sloved for in the preceeding section on p 443. If the correlation between the managers was anything but 0.78, this would not have worked out, yet the 0.78 did not come into play in any other part of the problem.
Am I missing something? It just seem like if the correlation was anything else, the rest of the example would blow up because the total risk budget would be greater than (or less than) 184 and therefore a different amount would be allocatied to each of them and then this number would not add to the $525MM that is supposed to be allocated to US equities.
Sorry for all of the questions today, but as you said, this text is DENSE and a lot of it comes out of left field.
Thank you!!!!
Shannon
There is another example in Jorion where he seems to pull something out of thin air.
If you look at the risk budgeting problem on p 444, there is something fishy going on.
The particular step I am talking about it where he says the $525 million is split evenly betweent the two traders. The risk budget allocated to each of them being $98MM is fine, but then their correlation just happens to be the exact amount it would need to be in order for the total VaR based risk budget to be $184MM, which was sloved for in the preceeding section on p 443. If the correlation between the managers was anything but 0.78, this would not have worked out, yet the 0.78 did not come into play in any other part of the problem.
Am I missing something? It just seem like if the correlation was anything else, the rest of the example would blow up because the total risk budget would be greater than (or less than) 184 and therefore a different amount would be allocatied to each of them and then this number would not add to the $525MM that is supposed to be allocated to US equities.
Sorry for all of the questions today, but as you said, this text is DENSE and a lot of it comes out of left field.
Thank you!!!!
Shannon