Hi David,
I got some questions after viewing the screencast:
1. How to handle "lack alpha forecast for stocks in benchmark"?
2 "The size of the no-trade region depends on the transactions costs, the risk aversion, and the expected return and risk of stocks and bonds." But I think the size of the region just depends on the tran cost (purchase cost + sell cost).. could you clarify?
3. why in MCVA formula, there is a 2 in the 2nd term? It looks inconsistent with the fomular of ValueAdded.
4. Should ValueAdded consider/exclude transaction cost? Is the puropse of port construction to maximize ValueAdded or alpha?
5. Schweser says "high risk aversion and low transaction cost leads to low TE. And without transaction cost, there will be no TE or dispersion". Does it make sense? Could you explain?
6. One methods to reduce dispersion to zero is to "invest the composite in the new optimum.
–But requires paying excess transactions costs.
–By treating existing portfolio and new portfolio separately, accepts some level of dispersion for higher returns."
Do you mean the "composite" is the new portfolio or the whole composite? If it is new portfolio, why it requires paying excess transactions costs? if it is the whole composite, why does it "treat existing portfolio and new portfolio separately"?
Thanks!
I got some questions after viewing the screencast:
1. How to handle "lack alpha forecast for stocks in benchmark"?
2 "The size of the no-trade region depends on the transactions costs, the risk aversion, and the expected return and risk of stocks and bonds." But I think the size of the region just depends on the tran cost (purchase cost + sell cost).. could you clarify?
3. why in MCVA formula, there is a 2 in the 2nd term? It looks inconsistent with the fomular of ValueAdded.
4. Should ValueAdded consider/exclude transaction cost? Is the puropse of port construction to maximize ValueAdded or alpha?
5. Schweser says "high risk aversion and low transaction cost leads to low TE. And without transaction cost, there will be no TE or dispersion". Does it make sense? Could you explain?
6. One methods to reduce dispersion to zero is to "invest the composite in the new optimum.
–But requires paying excess transactions costs.
–By treating existing portfolio and new portfolio separately, accepts some level of dispersion for higher returns."
Do you mean the "composite" is the new portfolio or the whole composite? If it is new portfolio, why it requires paying excess transactions costs? if it is the whole composite, why does it "treat existing portfolio and new portfolio separately"?
Thanks!