Can you please explain the reason behind this statement that I read in notes.
From a mathematical standpoint, it is never optimal to execute an early exercise on an
American call option on a non-dividend paying stock. However, it can be optimal to execute
an early exercise on an American put. In general, we can say that for an American put, the
early exercise becomes more attractive as:
Stock price (So) decreases,
Risk-free (r) rate increases, and/or
Volatility (s) decreases.
From a mathematical standpoint, it is never optimal to execute an early exercise on an
American call option on a non-dividend paying stock. However, it can be optimal to execute
an early exercise on an American put. In general, we can say that for an American put, the
early exercise becomes more attractive as:
Stock price (So) decreases,
Risk-free (r) rate increases, and/or
Volatility (s) decreases.