schumi_frm
New Member
I remember it being written different . That ES (p1 + p2) <= p1 + p2. Probably read it wrong though. Although I don’t think var(p1 + p2) >= p1 + p2 makes sense. Take two continuous distributions and add the variance with negative correlation and your inequality fails.
It could be that you are right, not sure that I remember correctly. I found the questions quite clearly written (and not trying to confuse), but with the time pressure and the nerves it is always possible to read wrong....
@oldfed, I do indeed remember the combined question that Ankitrautela mentioned.