prasadhegde1
New Member
Hi David
In Dowd (market risk ) reading (modeling dependence : correlation and copulas) he mentions that correlation is a good measure of dependence when random variables are normally distributed but it is not an adequate measure for multivariate normal distribution , a zero correlation implies that the variables are independent .
but doesnt correlation explain linear dependency and when its zero it means that there is no linear dependence but it may not mean non linear dependency is absent , could you please explain why returns having multivariate normal distribution assume zero correlation = independent
secondly , why do we need copulas ? is it for the same reason that correlation is inadequate for multivariate normal distribution ?
It would be very helpful if you could clarify
In Dowd (market risk ) reading (modeling dependence : correlation and copulas) he mentions that correlation is a good measure of dependence when random variables are normally distributed but it is not an adequate measure for multivariate normal distribution , a zero correlation implies that the variables are independent .
but doesnt correlation explain linear dependency and when its zero it means that there is no linear dependence but it may not mean non linear dependency is absent , could you please explain why returns having multivariate normal distribution assume zero correlation = independent
secondly , why do we need copulas ? is it for the same reason that correlation is inadequate for multivariate normal distribution ?
It would be very helpful if you could clarify