If underlying flow is zero, then short gains 80; or under the binomial:
if underlying flow is 100, then short loses 20, such that 100-20
However, the lack of any systematic risk ensures that F(0) = E[S(t)] such that the forward price available should be, as you suggest, "the expected future CF? 50% *($0 + $100,000)"
Candidly, I don't love this question, it's too much Stulz, I am tagging it for replacement in our next (2014) version, thanks,
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