Liquidity Var

itsyourz

New Member
Hi

in 08 Practice exam part I, no.36, which is about LVaR

I think the solution has an mistyping

it says, estimating liquidity peice is V * 0.5 ( mean - 1.96sigma)

then putting given numbers in that, i got 244,000 , which is different from 344,000 in solution

that minus should be changed into plus in my opinion

because liquidity risk is caused by wider spread,

therefore V*0.5( mean + 1.96sigma ) must be right

and then i can get the right answer

is it ok?

oh. one more thing! why 1.96 is put into 95% var calculation?? Garp's mistake?

they made it so many times..

suk
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi suk,

See my prior on this. But you don't need too, really: I agree with you on both points.
(in GARP's defense, the source Culp reading has a +/- error, which you note)
The good news is: nicely done, to spot *both* errors is to be in full command of the issue! I am blushing with pride that my customer has such an eagle eye :)

David
 
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