Hi
in 08 Practice exam part I, no.36, which is about LVaR
I think the solution has an mistyping
it says, estimating liquidity peice is V * 0.5 ( mean - 1.96sigma)
then putting given numbers in that, i got 244,000 , which is different from 344,000 in solution
that minus should be changed into plus in my opinion
because liquidity risk is caused by wider spread,
therefore V*0.5( mean + 1.96sigma ) must be right
and then i can get the right answer
is it ok?
oh. one more thing! why 1.96 is put into 95% var calculation?? Garp's mistake?
they made it so many times..
suk
in 08 Practice exam part I, no.36, which is about LVaR
I think the solution has an mistyping
it says, estimating liquidity peice is V * 0.5 ( mean - 1.96sigma)
then putting given numbers in that, i got 244,000 , which is different from 344,000 in solution
that minus should be changed into plus in my opinion
because liquidity risk is caused by wider spread,
therefore V*0.5( mean + 1.96sigma ) must be right
and then i can get the right answer
is it ok?
oh. one more thing! why 1.96 is put into 95% var calculation?? Garp's mistake?
they made it so many times..
suk