Hull 6.14 exercise

ammor

New Member
Hi David,

In this question, I didn't understand why did you convert the forward rate from quarterly compounding to continuous compounding. In question 6.13 it was clear because it says (both with actual/365 and continuous) and because Eurodollars are quoted with actual/360 and quarterly compounding, you did the conversion, but in 6.14 I’m quite confused!
Can you please explain why?
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi ammor,

That's a question from Hull's textbook, i didn't write it. I am not sure, either, why he was compelled to convert to continuous except (i) he does that throughout/habit, or (ii) the final calc is maybe easier to do (?). But i do agree: i see no reason to "exit" quarterly and i would have answered this with:

(((1+4%/4)^(4*300/360)*(1+4.17%/4)^(4*98/360))^(1/(4*398/360))-1)*4 = 4.0419% 398-day zero rate
i.e., quarterly compounding, actual/360 (without any day count conversion)

David
 
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