Hello,
I am trying to make sense of the fact that we reduce Tier 1 capital by the amount of goodwill on a balance sheet. Could someone please take a look at this and let me know if I am on the right track?
ABC has $100MM in tier 1 capital. It buys XYZ for $50MM, but it only has assets worth $20MM.
Instead of saying that ABC has $150MM in Tier 1 capital, it only has $120MM.
I know this is a gross oversimplification, but is my thought process correct?
Thanks!
Shannon
I am trying to make sense of the fact that we reduce Tier 1 capital by the amount of goodwill on a balance sheet. Could someone please take a look at this and let me know if I am on the right track?
ABC has $100MM in tier 1 capital. It buys XYZ for $50MM, but it only has assets worth $20MM.
Instead of saying that ABC has $150MM in Tier 1 capital, it only has $120MM.
I know this is a gross oversimplification, but is my thought process correct?
Thanks!
Shannon