Hi there,
I am a bit confused as to the computation of interepretation of variance on an FX portfolio.
Assume i have three pairs:
EURUSD
USDJPY
GBPUSD
I computer the covariance matrix in excel and mutliply with the weight matrix.
For weights, i use the GBP equivalent for each position divided by the total GBP for all positions. So, for example, if i am 1000 units of EURUSD long, i will multiply that by the GBPEUR rate to get the amount in GBP and divide by the total in GBP.
For the covariance matrix, i simply run the COVAR excel function between the pair time sequences.
This yields a standard deviation of 0.7040%
Does this sound resonable? If so, how do i interpret this result?
Thanks!
Ioannis
I am a bit confused as to the computation of interepretation of variance on an FX portfolio.
Assume i have three pairs:
EURUSD
USDJPY
GBPUSD
I computer the covariance matrix in excel and mutliply with the weight matrix.
For weights, i use the GBP equivalent for each position divided by the total GBP for all positions. So, for example, if i am 1000 units of EURUSD long, i will multiply that by the GBPEUR rate to get the amount in GBP and divide by the total in GBP.
For the covariance matrix, i simply run the COVAR excel function between the pair time sequences.
This yields a standard deviation of 0.7040%
Does this sound resonable? If so, how do i interpret this result?
Thanks!
Ioannis