wrongsaidfred
Member
Hi David,
I am confused about the statement: If futures prices are increasing functions with time to maturity, short should deliver as soon as possible.
Maybe it is the pure mechanics of exactly what is taking place when a short closes out her position that is confusing me.
Please tell me if this is correct: Holder of short futures contract must either sell the underlying or buy a contract in the open market so that they are flat. If they buy back the contract, wouldn't they want the price of the contract to be as low as possible? In this case, it seems like the oposite would hod true than was stated above. It seems like the short would want to hold off until the last possible date because the longer the contract is held, the shorter the time to maturity and the lower the price of the contract. Where is my logic incorrect?
I also have a very basic question. If the holder of the short position decides to deliver, what exactly is the flow of funds? Lets say the seller shorts a contract to sell something at $50 and the price of this futures contract goes down to $45. Does this mean that the seller must sell this item at $45 to the long position holder? Something about that is not right because this way the seller would only be getting $45 instead of the $50 they tried to lock in.
Any explanation you could provide would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks,
Mike
I am confused about the statement: If futures prices are increasing functions with time to maturity, short should deliver as soon as possible.
Maybe it is the pure mechanics of exactly what is taking place when a short closes out her position that is confusing me.
Please tell me if this is correct: Holder of short futures contract must either sell the underlying or buy a contract in the open market so that they are flat. If they buy back the contract, wouldn't they want the price of the contract to be as low as possible? In this case, it seems like the oposite would hod true than was stated above. It seems like the short would want to hold off until the last possible date because the longer the contract is held, the shorter the time to maturity and the lower the price of the contract. Where is my logic incorrect?
I also have a very basic question. If the holder of the short position decides to deliver, what exactly is the flow of funds? Lets say the seller shorts a contract to sell something at $50 and the price of this futures contract goes down to $45. Does this mean that the seller must sell this item at $45 to the long position holder? Something about that is not right because this way the seller would only be getting $45 instead of the $50 they tried to lock in.
Any explanation you could provide would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks,
Mike