the classic example is: assume PD = 1% and 10 credits
if 0.0 correlation, PD (1st to default) = 1-(1-1%)^10 = about 10%
but if 1.0 correlation, PD (1st) goes all the way down to 1%
similarly, -1.0 correlation ensures a 1st to default (!)
This just plain stumps me because your logic (syllogism) sure looks fine yet the conclusion *appears* onerous
...e.g., my perfect correlation copula returns a Minimum(p(A), p(B) function which implies, for example, PD(A) = 5% and PD(B) = 8% such that PD(AB) = min() = 5%
...so I feel the conclusion that P(A) must = P(B) is too strict but i cannot justify by finding a fallacy??
uggg...apparently simple problems can be so hard
Hi ajsa - I was thinking the exact same thing...although i did go to my copula XLS (http://www.bionicturtle.com/premium/spreadsheet/5.d.2._gaussian_copula/) and i input PD(5%), PD(8%) and default correlation of 1.0 (0.9999999) and it correctly returned joint PD of 5% (per the copula minimum function) .... ergo i cannot seem to reconcile ??! ...David
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