Hi David,
In Q44: Debt overhang - you have an example of Stulz Firm HLG which has debt of $1Bln maturing in 1 yr. HLG will sell 1 Mln oz of gold at the end of year either @ 1400 or 800 / oz each with 50% prob. Price of Gold is not a systematic risk, Risk free is 4%. HLG can invest $100 Mln with a payoff of $200 Mln at the end of year
What is HLG Debt to equity ratio @ the beginning and end of year?
You have a spreadsheet which explains very clearly. The point where i am confused is where you calc 50% prob of debt when price at the end of year is 800. You have taken that as Min(HLG debt of $1bln, $800Mln). Why? let say HLG makes $800 Mio at the end of year and paysoff the debt the net debt still remains of $400 Mio in that case..no? why take minimum?
Pls advise. I have attached your calc as well.
Many thanks!!
In Q44: Debt overhang - you have an example of Stulz Firm HLG which has debt of $1Bln maturing in 1 yr. HLG will sell 1 Mln oz of gold at the end of year either @ 1400 or 800 / oz each with 50% prob. Price of Gold is not a systematic risk, Risk free is 4%. HLG can invest $100 Mln with a payoff of $200 Mln at the end of year
What is HLG Debt to equity ratio @ the beginning and end of year?
You have a spreadsheet which explains very clearly. The point where i am confused is where you calc 50% prob of debt when price at the end of year is 800. You have taken that as Min(HLG debt of $1bln, $800Mln). Why? let say HLG makes $800 Mio at the end of year and paysoff the debt the net debt still remains of $400 Mio in that case..no? why take minimum?
Pls advise. I have attached your calc as well.
Many thanks!!