Creating value with risk management - value of firm with taxes

zript

Member
Hi,

In paragraph 3.2 from Creating Value with risk management document, Rene Stulz show us the formula of the value of a firm with taxes

He took Pure gold price as example. I understand that Value of firm = PV(Gold Sales) - PV(Taxes). I agree that PV(Gold Sales) = 333.33 but I do not understand where 0,5 comes from in PV(Sales). For me PV(Sales) should equal to 75/1,05. In fact we discount the 75 million taxes that will be paid in the future.

Could you help me finding where 0,5 comes from in PV(Sales formula)?

Thanks,
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi zript,

The 0.5 is the probability of the up-jump in the binomial alternative (to the guaranteed, hedged forward price $350) where the uncertain outcome (he simplifies with a one-step binomial tree) is $250 or $350. Key to his point is a differential tax rate: the hedged $350 guarantees a tax, but the unhedged is 50/50 to pay taxes, as under his simple progressive tax structure the down-jump outcome (250) pays no taxes.
(please note I put this on the second tab of this XLS @ http://www.bionicturtle.com/how-to/spreadsheet/1.b.4_stulz_bankruptcy_taxes_debt_overhang/) ... David

http://learn.bionicturtle.com/images/forum/0828_stulztaxes.png
 
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