Hi,
When computing Value at risk with covariance matrix, horizontal and vertical Beta vectors of investment amounts were used in Meisser's book. And, in his example, there are asset A (with 8 million $ and 1.5% std. dev.) and Asset B (with 4 million $ and 2% std. dev) the correlation is 0.6, also. At the end, by putting the amounts into the equation, the portfolio std. dev. is found as 0.1798.
How does the std. dev. of the portfolio can be 0.1798 whereas the std devs. of the assets are 0.015 and 0.02.
Why do we use the amounts instead of the weights?
When computing Value at risk with covariance matrix, horizontal and vertical Beta vectors of investment amounts were used in Meisser's book. And, in his example, there are asset A (with 8 million $ and 1.5% std. dev.) and Asset B (with 4 million $ and 2% std. dev) the correlation is 0.6, also. At the end, by putting the amounts into the equation, the portfolio std. dev. is found as 0.1798.
How does the std. dev. of the portfolio can be 0.1798 whereas the std devs. of the assets are 0.015 and 0.02.
Why do we use the amounts instead of the weights?