wrongsaidfred
Member
Hi David,
I have a couple of quick questions about the discussion on basis in part a of the prodcuts videos.
First, in slide 52, you say that when the basis goes from -10 to -5 it is a weakening of the basis. By this, do you just mean that it was supposed to be zero at the end of the hedge, but because it is now less than zero it would be considered a weakeing of the basis?
Next, from this discussion, it seems like all hedgers expect the basis to decrease to zero. Is this correct?
This market is obviously in cantango. Does the same methodology apply when in normal backwardation?
Finally, the whole idea of "favorable" or "unfavorable" is a little confusing to me. Does this mean that they are better off than they were when they put on the hedge, better off than if they did not hedge at all, etc? It just seems a bit arbitrary.
Thank you,
Mike
I have a couple of quick questions about the discussion on basis in part a of the prodcuts videos.
First, in slide 52, you say that when the basis goes from -10 to -5 it is a weakening of the basis. By this, do you just mean that it was supposed to be zero at the end of the hedge, but because it is now less than zero it would be considered a weakeing of the basis?
Next, from this discussion, it seems like all hedgers expect the basis to decrease to zero. Is this correct?
This market is obviously in cantango. Does the same methodology apply when in normal backwardation?
Finally, the whole idea of "favorable" or "unfavorable" is a little confusing to me. Does this mean that they are better off than they were when they put on the hedge, better off than if they did not hedge at all, etc? It just seems a bit arbitrary.
Thank you,
Mike