Hello,
I have difficulties understanding why the change in price has to be added to the original price and not subtracted. I believe it has to do with the short position, but can anyone help?
Thank you very much!
Johannes
Hi there,
I would like to post the question of whether a UGD of less than 100% is plausible in the real world.
So far, in any credit risk modelling that I came across, UGD was assumed to be exactly 100% (leaving aside confusing covenants), because as a debtor moves into default, she will "max...
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