Hi,
in 06 practice exam set I , number 40.
about Geometric Brown Motion.
I know S is lognormally distributed and then ln(S) is normally distributed
how come is dS/S normally distributed?
it says dS/S equals to d ln(S)
is it mathmatically equal?
Hi David,
if i short call option of a stock, which is ATM and its maturity is very short
what kinds of greeks pose the highest risk to my position?
Gamma, of course. is it because i am in short position?
if i long this option, i got plus gamma, then it's not risk, is it?
How...
98 frm exam question 43
question is
if risk is defined as a potential for unexpected loss, which factors contribute to the risk of a long put option position?
answer is a. delta vega and rho.
it says positive gamma should not be chosen because it lowers risk
but why are hedgers...
hi David,
i got a question about Garch,
no.82 on 07 practice exam, it's about forecast annualized volatility for a five days option starting from day n
i couldn't solve this because `u` is not given, but in garp's explanation
there is new formula
that is, expected volatility at...
what's the difference between them?
while i'm trying to figure out question no.34 of 07 practice exam part I
the answer is a
because the liability concentration levels of the asset originator is more significant for underlying originator,
not for investor. This is what garp says...
Hi David,
no.27 in 07 practice exam I
d is that "credit metrics handles full defaults but not partial defaults or recoveries"
i dont know what full default and partial defaults are
d is the answer of this question, which is not a feature of creditmetrics
having a look at what...
Hi, i asked so many question,,
i'm nearly frustrated after i scored practice exam
anyway
no.40 looks quite simple
but i can not understand what attached answer says
what percentage of this distribution (uniform) will be less than 1.96*SD above the mean which is zero
did i...
hi david,
i'm confused of long expiry long call and something like that
those are mentioned in question no. 36 on page 129 in 08' practice exam.
long expiry means a option with long maturity??
then why are gamma risk and vega risk equal to short expiry, long expiry respectively...
Hi David,
thank you for quick answer! it is really helpful!
another question on 08 exam page127, no.31
could you explain the answer, how it is hedged against holding corporate bond ?
i think it's strange, because the correct answer c says short CDS
long position of corporate bond...
what is it becoming risky as default correlation is more negative?
if it is positive 1, then every tranches are regarded same?
i mean, when one of them is default, then all of them is default, due to the default correlation is 1
so in my opinion, this case would be riskier than negative...
Hi David!
i'm frustrated after i scored my practice exam..
i have to push myself for 10 days!
anyway,
i got a question, page 71, No.29
answer says the yield of the bond is calculated by 1/maturity * ln(D/F)
D must be face value or future value and what is F? is it present value...
second part of 08 practice exam, page 63 number 7
i dont get it why put delta should be used
is it because change in put delta is plus? as stock price decreases
moreover, why option delta is used even though hedging strategy is index futures?
thanks
suk
hi!
in slide of Jarque-Bera test,
why is the degree of freedom of 2 ?
and how can it be concluded whether the null be rejected or not ?
I looked at the study note, but i didn't get it
thanks
suk
hi david,
can square root rule be used in mean reverting condition?? rather than random walk??
and in autocorrelation condition, square root rule can not be applied to calculate multi-period var
am i right??
thanks David
Suk
Hi David!
i have several question regarding to market risk part A slides
1) could you explain about short squeez roughly ?
2) the relationship between forward and futures prices,
i want to know the reason why both of them are affected by strong correlation and contract life,
could...
i have just a simple question about information ratio in the spread sheet
the IR of MGR1 and MGR2 are 0.6 and 0.4, respectively
how are they calculated??
the IR of portfolio at the bottom is 0.72 which is from 2.9%/4%
isnt it excess return devided by TEV??
but i can not get it of...
slide 74, it says
long overvalued , short undervalued
i dont get it, intuitively i think overvalued stock is expensive,
that is, it's over-priced isn't it?
am i misunderstanding??
cheers
suk
according to operational risk B , slide 32
it says, Trasnferring the cost of unsystematic risks creates value because its cost in capital mkt is zero
i dont get it, how does it create value even though its cost is zero?
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