Is there a BT video on FTAP? I keep getting lost in the notation.
Does this theorem essentially say that if if you can specify all of the future values of an asset A in terms of asset B then arbitrage opportunities allow to price asset A based on the risk neutral probabilities embedded in Asset A and B?
Does this theorem essentially say that if if you can specify all of the future values of an asset A in terms of asset B then arbitrage opportunities allow to price asset A based on the risk neutral probabilities embedded in Asset A and B?
