Sidharth
New Member
Hi
My doubt is on Credit Risk+. I was going through the CFSB doc at following link, In the first model where we come across a recursion to create distribution. (equation 25 page 40)
At that point we need data input for E[j] and V[j]
where j is 1<j<m where m is the number of exposure bands you have created
E[j] - is the expected loss in that band
V[j] is exposure in that band.
I want to create loss distribution of portfolio having two bonds worth 50mn and 100mn, I will take minimum unit of L to be 5mn and i create 3 following bands
0-25 mn first band V[1] = 10 (25 from first bond and 25 from second)
25-60mn second band V[2] = 12 (25 from first and 35 from second)
60-100mn third band V[3] = 8 (40 from second)
Values of E[j] are not very clear to me , assume both bonds depend on same risk factor with probability of 2% default and have recovery rate of 60%.
Is it okay to assume E[j] can be = 2% X V[j] hence
E[1] = .2 E[2] = .24 and E[3] = .16
Taking above into count , I am not able to get all the values for the loss distribution , I have attached spreadsheet i used, can you please take a look and let me know if anything can be improved here.
Regards
Sidharth
Link
http://www.csfb.com/institutional/research/assets/creditrisk.pdf
My doubt is on Credit Risk+. I was going through the CFSB doc at following link, In the first model where we come across a recursion to create distribution. (equation 25 page 40)
At that point we need data input for E[j] and V[j]
where j is 1<j<m where m is the number of exposure bands you have created
E[j] - is the expected loss in that band
V[j] is exposure in that band.
I want to create loss distribution of portfolio having two bonds worth 50mn and 100mn, I will take minimum unit of L to be 5mn and i create 3 following bands
0-25 mn first band V[1] = 10 (25 from first bond and 25 from second)
25-60mn second band V[2] = 12 (25 from first and 35 from second)
60-100mn third band V[3] = 8 (40 from second)
Values of E[j] are not very clear to me , assume both bonds depend on same risk factor with probability of 2% default and have recovery rate of 60%.
Is it okay to assume E[j] can be = 2% X V[j] hence
E[1] = .2 E[2] = .24 and E[3] = .16
Taking above into count , I am not able to get all the values for the loss distribution , I have attached spreadsheet i used, can you please take a look and let me know if anything can be improved here.
Regards
Sidharth
Link
http://www.csfb.com/institutional/research/assets/creditrisk.pdf