Can someone remind me how CS01 is derived from the traded spread of CDS? I am blanking on this.
The context is in terms of looking at potential shocks (i.e. 50%, or 60%) of the current spread, and what upfront margin to charge in a CDS trade. The upfront margin will mitigate the potential movement in the MTM of a bilateral trade, and a counterparty's inability to meet that margin call.
Thanks,
Ryan
The context is in terms of looking at potential shocks (i.e. 50%, or 60%) of the current spread, and what upfront margin to charge in a CDS trade. The upfront margin will mitigate the potential movement in the MTM of a bilateral trade, and a counterparty's inability to meet that margin call.
Thanks,
Ryan