I may have some misunderstanding of these approaches and have some questions :
p. 25 First approach: Surplus at risk = 21.87% * $1000 (the assets value). Why use assets value but not $100 (the surplus value)?
p.26 Alternate approach : Surplus at risk = 18.1 (but why not volatility of...
Sorry for the simple questions.
Could you please explain why there is a negative in front of mean? Normal dis. VaR is (-mean+sigma*z)*V
Also what are relative VaR and absolute VaR?
Thanks
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