I too passed L2 with 11112... Congrats to Mcarthur and Jiew Kwang also...based on the forum discussion we had after the exam, i actually did expect all of us to pass :) waiting for AG to post now..
Lol...i too dnt remember a few questions mentioned... Questions 3, 5, 6, 17 and 27 :O
What was the answer for that copula question? I marked it combines marginal correlations to arrive at joint correlations or something like that...
Dnt exactly remember my answer for the friction b/w arranger...
For the mortgage principal paid in 61st month, i went ahead with 25 years and then calculating the required payment to be made in the first month...didnt take 30 years since the first 5 years was the lockout period....
For TRS and CLN, i frankly dnt knw wat shud be the answer...thinking abt it...
@AG: haha...yea..thats the fun part of FRM..sometimes all options look correct and sometimes none looks correct :D
The thing with that question was that the answer depends on what exactly the question was referring to...did it talk about what the firm cud do to get the same return from the...
@Emeka: r u saying that QQ plot was not referring to fat tails...?? Sorry but i cudnt quite understand the reference that u have posted without the diagram..and i dnt exactly recall the diagrsm at this point..
Haha..i think we all marked different answers for that question...i marked TRS...i also dnt remember the exact question...think it was that the firm needs to buy an asset but its standalone creditworthiness is not good enough for it to get a loan...so what can it do to get that asset...with TRS...
Yea for the country default think i also remember having narked this statement as true...the other one was wrong...but cant recall what the statement was..
Oh yea..there was this question on convertible arbitrage...dnt remember the options...one was something related to volatility increase...
Yea for the LVaR question, as far as we all got the same answer of 566,000 it really doesnt matter i guess :)
For the 95%, 99% backtesting at 90% confidence, i think options 3 and 4 were same...one of those mentioned type 1 error and the second option also referred to the same thing without...
Well, yea...for that LVaR question i can see the logic both ways...i got an exact answer using just the Exogenous approach...but knowing what GARP does, it could very well be a trap ;)... Maybe if AG got the exact answer using his approach and it matched the answer options then he cud very well...
For LVAR, the formula is LVAR (exogenous) * LVAR (endogeneous)...but i think th question mentioned that the trade did not affect the market value or was small compared to the market...something in that respect...so i used only LVAR (exogeneous)..i might be wrong given that i didnt read the...
In BIA approach, one ignores the negative income from numerator and hence denominator will be average of the remaining incomes i.e the sum of the 2 positive gross incomes multiplied by 15% and divided by 2 (not 3)
Few more questions that I can remember...
23. There was 1 on LVaR...exogenous and endogeneous formula given...just needed to put in the values
24. 1 question on LAR (Liquidity at Risk)...cant recall the exact question
25. Barbell and Bullet portfolio...equal duration, higher convexity..something...
Let me try to put in a few answers which I marked to the above discussed questions...dnt knw how many of those are correct ;)
1. HHI index - no idea, i dnt even remember what I guessed :O
2. MBS prepayment speeds - this one i was quite certain (i think ;))
the tranche priced at premium will...
it looks like GARP in order to have 40% passing would keep the pass range between 55 and 65 coz most of us in this forum have given a CFA level1 and level 2 and hve found the FRM level 1 very challenging
lets see on jan 5th
I hope the pass rate is higher than 40% :D... something like...
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