I am not sure about the offer price... When the financial institution tries to liquidate the large position [n] let's say n > 10, the spread widens. I understand why the bid price widens, as there is a surplus, a lot of supply in the market. But I can't get why the offer price widens.
Quote: 'put-call parity shows that the price exposure from writing a covered call is the same as the exposure from writing a naked put.'. Put-call parity is c+Ke -rt = p+S0. We know that S0 - c is a covered call and -S0 + c is naked put but what about Ke-rt. I know that we don't have it in the...
Hello! May someone explain how to get the distribution like below. We cancel out T in the mean by dividing by 1/t but we also should cancel the T out in the variance part but after canceling we still have sigma/T but why not just sigma. So we have (mu - sigma2 / 2) * T, sigma2 * T and all this...
What does 'There is no cost involved in the reduction of risk exposures through diversification. Consequently, there is no compensation for taking asset-specific risk.
' mean?
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