hi, i think you shouldn't wast time on all this comparison, just make sure you understand qualitative aspects more than anything and master the important quantitative assessment tools that you will encounter and will be easily recognizable. i think should be enough and good luck!
asian option is indeed 0, because the average will not much significantly during the last 10 days and volatility is 10% a year.
increase in default correlation should be increase in unexpected loss
portfolio construction i think screening but could be wrong, these are the annoying questions
thanks for your answer, well I don't know in Lebanon we were 10 registered for part 2 and only 8 came. So I'd say those who didn't come are those who were unprepared.
hi chouchouc,
I think you should have used a formula for risk neutral up move and down move
U=1+r-D/U-D
when you get this you just multiply by 10 then discount back at risk free rate
Hi David am new to BT, but I hear a lot about you. Also hope everyone did well and thanks for posting what you remember of question.
on the LCR question the answer is 140% because inflows are limited to 75% of outflows.
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