if following the quantile rather than pass/fail then pass/fail being messed up would become a live case of operational risk case in next year's current issue curriculum
In the example of Mapping a two-bond portfolio, the spreadsheet used (1-(1+YTM)^-Maturity)*1/YTM, I might've seen this formula in p1 but cannot remember, is this an alternative of calculating mod duration?
Are you differentiating the underling position by "expressing view"? I am just trying to find another way to help myself understand better. This part has always been hard for me. If seller sells in future at predetermined price, he is betting against price increase which is a short view whereas...
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