or rather confused with Expected Value function. is it same as Mean? or is it something different. Can you please help if someone can explain in simple words. Thanks a million.
Expected value of X is the mean of X; they are equivalent. That being said, the Expected Value Function iteself is not the mean, for example, E(X) = the mean of X but E(aX+bX^2) would not be the mean of X, for example. It could be thought of as the mean of aX + bX^2 though!
It's just derivation using Expectations Operator.. u is always E(X) in a probability distribution with random variable X ... summation p * f(x) will give us the mean aka E(X) ..
Yes the Expected Value function is same as Mean.Let assume n different observations(x1,x2,...xn) all being equally likely to occur with probability =1/n
The observations mean is =sum of observations/n=(x1+x2+x3+.....xn)/n=(1/n)*x1+(1/n)*x2+.....+(1/n)*xn=probability of obs 1 occurance*x1+probability of obs 2 occurance*x2+.......+probability of obs n occurrence*xn=Expected value of observations(x1,x2,...xn) therefore mean=Expected value for any set of n observations(x1,x2,...xn).
For e.g. dice throw all the faces (1,2,...6) are equally likely with probability 1/6,the mean of the faces=(1+2+3+4+5+6)/6=3.5
The expected value=probability of obs 1 occurance*1+probability of obs 2 occurance*2+.......+probability of obs 6 occurrence*6=(1/6)*1+(1/6)*2+(1/6)*3+(1/6)*4+(1/6)*5+(1/6)*6=(1+2+3+4+5+6)/6=3.5= mean of the faces.
Let check for X=1, then RHS=Var(X)=Var(1)=0
LHS=E[(X-mean)^2]=E[(1-1)^2]=E[(0)^2]=E[0]=0=RHS hence the relation Var(X)=E[(X-mean)^2] holds for X=1 thus in this way ascent to any numbers so that the equation holds for any set of numbers.
thanks
This site uses cookies to help personalise content, tailor your experience and to keep you logged in if you register.
By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our use of cookies.