Hi everyone,
I am keen to know how Tuckman produces the graph where he shows the price - par rate relationship for the three securities in "One-Factor Risk Metrics and Hedges". Until now I've only seen price - YTM relationship graphs (usually authors explain duration etc. with this relationship as in the CFA ...).
As I understand it, par rates (swap rates) are basically derived from a given term structure of spot rates applied to a specific security - i.e. we set the coupon rate of this security to this par rate - such as the price is equal to par.
Is my assumption correct that Tuckman uses the following price - par rate function for these graphs:
P = 1+ [c - C(T)]/2 * A(T)
where c=coupon, C(T)=par rate, A(T)=annuity factor i.e. sum of all discount rates derived from the given spot rates
And what does a shift in this par rate such as +1bps imply with regards to the underlying term structure of spot rates?
Thanks a lot!
I am keen to know how Tuckman produces the graph where he shows the price - par rate relationship for the three securities in "One-Factor Risk Metrics and Hedges". Until now I've only seen price - YTM relationship graphs (usually authors explain duration etc. with this relationship as in the CFA ...).
As I understand it, par rates (swap rates) are basically derived from a given term structure of spot rates applied to a specific security - i.e. we set the coupon rate of this security to this par rate - such as the price is equal to par.
Is my assumption correct that Tuckman uses the following price - par rate function for these graphs:
P = 1+ [c - C(T)]/2 * A(T)
where c=coupon, C(T)=par rate, A(T)=annuity factor i.e. sum of all discount rates derived from the given spot rates
And what does a shift in this par rate such as +1bps imply with regards to the underlying term structure of spot rates?
Thanks a lot!