fjc120
Member
Hi,
Does anyone know why they ignored correlation and/or covariance when calculating the combined volatility of the portfolio?
In order to arrive at the combined volatility, the equation used was square root of (W^2)(S^2)+ (W^2)(S^2)
Shouldn't we also have included 2*pWSWS in order to arrive at porfolio variance of two funds (although info is not given)?
Does anyone know why they ignored correlation and/or covariance when calculating the combined volatility of the portfolio?
In order to arrive at the combined volatility, the equation used was square root of (W^2)(S^2)+ (W^2)(S^2)
Shouldn't we also have included 2*pWSWS in order to arrive at porfolio variance of two funds (although info is not given)?