Hi Bionic Turtle,
I'm having trouble understanding Partial PV01; and haven't found anything helpful on Google so far.
In the source reading Tuckman says "More specifically, the partial ’01 with respect to a particular fitted rate is defined as the change in the value of the portfolio after a one-basis-point decline in that fitted rate and a refitting of the [swap rate] curve, where the three-month LIBOR and the par 5-, 10-, and 30-year rates are kept the same"
Can you clarify what this means and what he mean by "refitting of the curve" ?
Thanks very much for you help !
I'm having trouble understanding Partial PV01; and haven't found anything helpful on Google so far.
In the source reading Tuckman says "More specifically, the partial ’01 with respect to a particular fitted rate is defined as the change in the value of the portfolio after a one-basis-point decline in that fitted rate and a refitting of the [swap rate] curve, where the three-month LIBOR and the par 5-, 10-, and 30-year rates are kept the same"
Can you clarify what this means and what he mean by "refitting of the curve" ?
Thanks very much for you help !